1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a project? a. Temporary b. Unique c. Repetitive d. Progressive elaboration
2. The project management process groups are: a. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing b. Scope, Time, Cost, Quality, and Risk c. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Risk d. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Quality
3. The triple constraint of project management includes: a. Scope, Time, and Cost b. Scope, Time, and Quality c. Scope, Time, and Risk d. Scope, Time, and Communications
4. The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships is called: a. Develop Project Charter b. Plan Resource Management c. Develop Project Team d. Manage Project Team
5. The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which project management process group? a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Monitoring and Controlling

Answers: 1. c, 2. a, 3. a, 4. b, 5. d

To prepare for the PMP certification exam, follow these tips:

1. Review the PMBOK (Project Management Body of Knowledge) Guide, as it is the primary reference for the exam.
2. Take practice exams and review sample questions to familiarize yourself with the question format and style.
3. Understand the key concepts, processes, tools, and techniques for each knowledge area.
4. Study the ITTOs (Inputs, Tools and Techniques, Outputs) for each process.
5. Join a study group or use online resources and forums to ask questions and learn from others’ experiences.

6. A project manager is using a tool that helps to determine the cause-and-effect relationship in a process. This tool is called: a. Pareto chart b. Scatter diagram c. Ishikawa diagram d. Histogram
7. The process of reviewing all change requests, approving changes, and managing changes to project deliverables, organizational process assets, and the project management plan is known as: a. Perform Integrated Change Control b. Control Scope c. Monitor and Control Project Work d. Direct and Manage Project Work
8. Which of the following is not a type of contract used in procurement management? a. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF) b. Time and Material (T&M) c. Fixed Price Economic Price Adjustment (FPEPA) d. Fixed Price Incentive (FPI)
9. The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, and supplies required to perform project work is called: a. Estimate Activity Resources b. Plan Resource Management c. Determine Budget d. Control Resources
10. Which of the following is not a project constraint? a. Scope b. Quality c. Cost d. Communications

Answers: 6. c, 7. a, 8. d, 9. a, 10. d

11. A project manager is analyzing the project schedule to determine the critical path. Which of the following techniques is the project manager using? a. Schedule Compression b. Resource Leveling c. Critical Path Method (CPM) d. Fast Tracking
12. During project execution, a stakeholder requests a change to the project scope. What should the project manager do first? a. Implement the change b. Update the project management plan c. Evaluate the impact of the change on the project d. Reject the change request
13. The process of monitoring the status of project activities to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is called: a. Develop Schedule b. Control Schedule c. Define Activities d. Sequence Activities
14. Which type of risk response strategy involves taking action to eliminate the threat or protect the project from its impact? a. Avoid b. Transfer c. Mitigate d. Accept
15. Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the process of Identify Stakeholders? a. Expert judgment b. Meetings c. Stakeholder analysis d. Communication methods

Answers: 11. c, 12. c, 13. b, 14. a, 15. c

16. Which type of dependency is established based on the nature of the work, and often involves inherent relationships between project activities? a. Mandatory dependency b. Discretionary dependency c. External dependency d. Internal dependency
17. In which project management process group does the process “Develop Project Charter” belong? a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Monitoring and Controlling
18. A project manager is using a project management information system (PMIS) to help plan, execute, and monitor project activities. Which process is the project manager performing? a. Develop Project Management Plan b. Direct and Manage Project Work c. Monitor and Control Project Work d. Close Project or Phase
19. Earned Value Management (EVM) is a technique that integrates which three key project management areas? a. Scope, Time, and Cost b. Time, Cost, and Quality c. Scope, Time, and Risk d. Scope, Quality, and Risk
20. In the context of project management, what does RACI stand for? a. Risk Analysis and Control Interface b. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed c. Resource Allocation and Cost Integration d. Requirements Assessment and Communication Implementation

Answers: 16. a, 17. a, 18. c, 19. a, 20. b

21. What is the purpose of a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)? a. To define the project’s scope by breaking it down into manageable components b. To develop the project schedule by listing all project activities c. To calculate the project budget by estimating costs for each task d. To manage project risks by identifying potential threats and opportunities
22. A project manager is using a technique to compare the planned project expenses to the actual expenses throughout the project. Which technique is the project manager using? a. Cost aggregation b. Earned value analysis c. To-complete performance index (TCPI) d. Cost variance (CV)
23. The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project assignments is known as: a. Plan Resource Management b. Estimate Activity Resources c. Acquire Resources d. Develop Team
24. Which of the following is an output of the Define Scope process? a. Scope Management Plan b. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) c. Project Scope Statement d. Requirements Traceability Matrix
25. During the execution phase of a project, a team member informs the project manager that a critical task is behind schedule. What should the project manager do first? a. Inform the project sponsor about the delay b. Ask the team member to work overtime to complete the task c. Analyze the impact of the delay on the project schedule d. Update the project management plan to reflect the new schedule

Answers: 21. a, 22. b, 23. c, 24. c, 25. c

26. A project manager is estimating the duration of project activities using historical information from similar projects. Which estimation technique is the project manager using? a. Analogous estimating b. Parametric estimating c. Three-point estimating d. Bottom-up estimating
27. A project manager is using a tool to visually represent the project team members and their reporting relationships. Which tool is the project manager using? a. RACI matrix b. Organizational chart c. Stakeholder register d. Responsibility assignment matrix
28. Which of the following processes is part of the Project Integration Management knowledge area? a. Develop Schedule b. Manage Quality c. Control Resources d. Close Project or Phase
29. The process of identifying, analyzing, and planning for risks and creating a risk management plan is called: a. Risk identification b. Risk management planning c. Qualitative risk analysis d. Quantitative risk analysis
30. Which of the following techniques is used to prioritize risks based on their probability of occurrence and potential impact on project objectives? a. Risk register b. Probability and impact matrix c. Risk data quality assessment d. Risk categorization

Answers: 26. a, 27. b, 28. d, 29. b, 30. b

31. The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is called: a. Define Activities b. Sequence Activities c. Estimate Activity Durations d. Develop Schedule
32. A project manager wants to use a technique to shorten the project schedule without changing the project scope. Which of the following techniques can the project manager use? a. Schedule Compression b. Critical Path Method (CPM) c. Resource Leveling d. Critical Chain Method (CCM)
33. A project manager is using a matrix to show the connection between project requirements and project objectives. Which of the following tools is the project manager using? a. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) b. WBS Dictionary c. Project Scope Statement d. Requirements Traceability Matrix
34. Which of the following is an input to the Plan Communications Management process? a. Communications management plan b. Project management plan c. Stakeholder register d. Work performance data
35. A project manager is assessing the effectiveness of risk responses in dealing with identified risks and their root causes. Which process is the project manager performing? a. Monitor Risks b. Control Risks c. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis d. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Answers: 31. b, 32. a, 33. d, 34. c, 35. a

36. A project manager has decided to use a tool that shows the project’s progress over time, comparing actual work completed to planned work. What is the name of this tool? a. Control chart b. Run chart c. Pareto chart d. Gantt chart
37. Which of the following procurement documents is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers, and typically includes a statement of work (SOW), proposed contract terms, and evaluation criteria? a. Request for Information (RFI) b. Request for Quotation (RFQ) c. Request for Proposal (RFP) d. Invitation for Bid (IFB)
38. The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as: a. Define Activities b. Sequence Activities c. Estimate Activity Durations d. Develop Schedule
39. In the context of project management, what does SWOT analysis stand for? a. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats b. Schedule, Work, Objectives, and Time c. Scope, Work, Opportunities, and Techniques d. Stakeholders, Work, Objectives, and Tasks
40. The process of ensuring that each project component is completed accurately, completely, and verified according to requirements before it is accepted is called: a. Validate Scope b. Control Quality c. Manage Quality d. Control Scope

Answers: 36. d, 37. c, 38. a, 39. a, 40. a

41. During a project, a stakeholder suggests a minor change that will not impact the project scope or schedule. What should the project manager do? a. Ignore the suggestion b. Implement the change without approval c. Follow the change control process d. Reject the change as it has no significant impact
42. The process of tracking, reviewing, and regulating the progress to meet the performance objectives defined in the project management plan is called: a. Direct and Manage Project Work b. Monitor and Control Project Work c. Perform Integrated Change Control d. Close Project or Phase
43. Which of the following is a type of contract that involves payment to the seller for the actual costs of the work plus a fixed fee, representing the seller’s profit? a. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA) b. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF) c. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) d. Time and Material (T&M)
44. A project manager is using the Delphi technique to gather expert opinions on the duration of project activities. Which process is the project manager performing? a. Define Activities b. Sequence Activities c. Estimate Activity Durations d. Develop Schedule
45. Which of the following is an output of the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process? a. Risk register updates b. Risk response plan c. Risk management plan d. Probability and impact matrix

Answers: 41. c, 42. b, 43. b, 44. c, 45. a

46. Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Estimate Costs process? a. Expert judgment b. Cost aggregation c. Control accounts d. Variance analysis
47. A project manager is using a network diagram to determine the project’s critical path. Which of the following best describes the critical path? a. The longest path through the project network diagram b. The shortest path through the project network diagram c. The path with the least amount of float or slack d. The path with the most amount of float or slack
48. A project manager needs to calculate the cost performance index (CPI) for a project. Which formula should be used? a. CPI = Earned Value (EV) / Actual Cost (AC) b. CPI = Planned Value (PV) / Actual Cost (AC) c. CPI = Earned Value (EV) / Planned Value (PV) d. CPI = Actual Cost (AC) / Earned Value (EV)
49. Which of the following processes involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline? a. Estimate Costs b. Determine Budget c. Control Costs d. Plan Cost Management
50. In the context of stakeholder management, what does the term “salience” refer to? a. The level of influence a stakeholder has on the project b. The level of interest a stakeholder has in the project c. The combination of a stakeholder’s power, urgency, and legitimacy d. The stakeholder’s ability to affect the project’s outcome

Answers: 46. a, 47. a, 48. a, 49. c, 50. c

51. A project manager is using a technique that involves identifying the root causes of risks and categorizing them based on their sources. What is the name of this technique? a. Root cause analysis b. Risk categorization c. Ishikawa diagram d. Risk breakdown structure
52. During a project, a team member identifies a new risk that was not previously documented. What should the project manager do next? a. Ignore the risk as it was not identified during the initial risk analysis b. Update the risk register and inform the project team c. Conduct a new risk analysis for the entire project d. Inform the project sponsor and seek approval for a change request
53. A project manager has just completed the Estimate Activity Durations process. What should be the immediate next step? a. Sequence Activities b. Define Activities c. Develop Schedule d. Develop Project Management Plan
54. What type of dependency is created when a project activity cannot begin until another activity has been completed? a. Finish-to-start (FS) b. Start-to-start (SS) c. Finish-to-finish (FF) d. Start-to-finish (SF)
55. In which process group does the project team formally accept the final product or service and bring the project to an orderly end? a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Closing

Answers: 51. d, 52. b, 53. c, 54. a, 55. d

56. A project manager is using a weighted scoring model to help select the best project from a list of potential projects. What process is the project manager performing? a. Identify Stakeholders b. Develop Project Charter c. Collect Requirements d. Perform Integrated Change Control
57. A project manager is evaluating the difference between the earned value (EV) and the actual cost (AC) to determine the cost variance (CV) of a project. What is the formula for calculating the cost variance? a. CV = EV – AC b. CV = AC – EV c. CV = EV / AC d. CV = AC / EV
58. A project manager is using a method to analyze the dependencies between different project activities and determine their logical order. Which technique is the project manager using? a. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) b. Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM) c. Gantt chart d. Dependency determination
59. Which of the following processes is part of the Project Scope Management knowledge area? a. Collect Requirements b. Develop Schedule c. Estimate Costs d. Control Resources
60. The process of identifying the specific needs and expectations of the project stakeholders is called: a. Stakeholder analysis b. Stakeholder identification c. Stakeholder engagement d. Stakeholder management

Answers: 56. b, 57. a, 58. a, 59. a, 60. a

61. What is the primary purpose of a project kick-off meeting? a. To develop the project schedule b. To establish communication channels among stakeholders c. To ensure that everyone understands the project objectives, scope, and their roles and responsibilities d. To identify project risks
62. In the context of the Project Management Triangle, which of the following is NOT one of its components? a. Scope b. Time c. Quality d. Cost
63. A project manager is using a graphical representation that shows how the project will transition from one phase to another. Which of the following tools is the project manager using? a. Network diagram b. Gantt chart c. Phase-gate model d. Flowchart
64. Which of the following is an output of the Plan Risk Management process? a. Risk register b. Risk management plan c. Risk response plan d. Risk breakdown structure
65. What is the primary purpose of a project charter? a. To authorize the project and provide the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities b. To define the project scope and project boundaries c. To identify and analyze the project stakeholders d. To create a detailed project schedule

Answers: 61. c, 62. c, 63. c, 64. b, 65. a

66. Which of the following estimating techniques uses historical data and expert judgment to estimate activity durations based on the similarity of the current project to previous ones? a. Analogous estimating b. Parametric estimating c. Bottom-up estimating d. Three-point estimating
67. A project manager is using the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) to estimate the duration of a project activity. Which of the following is an output of this technique? a. A single-point estimate b. A range estimate c. A resource estimate d. A cost estimate
68. Which of the following is a tool used in the Control Procurements process to ensure that both the buyer and the seller perform their contractual obligations? a. Contract change control system b. Procurement audits c. Inspection and audits d. Claims administration
69. A project manager is using a technique that involves comparing the actual project performance against the planned performance and analyzing the variance to determine if corrective action is necessary. What is the name of this technique? a. Variance analysis b. Trend analysis c. Root cause analysis d. Earned value analysis
70. In the context of project management, what does RACI stand for? a. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed b. Resource, Activity, Cost, and Impact c. Risk, Assessment, Control, and Implementation d. Requirements, Analysis, Communication, and Integration

Answers: 66. a, 67. b, 68. c, 69. a, 70. a

71. Which of the following is NOT a type of contract used in project procurement? a. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF) b. Time and Material (T&M) c. Firm Fixed Price (FFP) d. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
72. A project manager is using a technique that helps identify the cause-and-effect relationships among different factors in a process to determine the root cause of a problem. What is the name of this technique? a. Ishikawa diagram b. Pareto chart c. Histogram d. Scatter diagram
73. What is the primary purpose of a project management office (PMO)? a. To provide centralized management and support for projects within an organization b. To perform project audits and ensure compliance with regulations c. To provide training and certification for project managers d. To develop project management methodologies and tools
74. A project manager is using a quantitative risk analysis technique to assess the combined impact of identified risks on the overall project objectives. What is the name of this technique? a. Sensitivity analysis b. Decision tree analysis c. Monte Carlo simulation d. Risk data quality assessment
75. Which of the following processes involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive project management plan? a. Plan Scope Management b. Plan Schedule Management c. Plan Cost Management d. Develop Project Management Plan

Answers: 71. d (the correct option should be “Fixed Price Economic Price Adjustment (FPEPA)”), 72. a, 73. a, 74. c, 75. d

76. A project manager wants to determine the critical path of a project. Which of the following scheduling techniques should the project manager use? a. Critical Path Method (CPM) b. Critical Chain Method (CCM) c. Resource Leveling d. Resource Smoothing
77. In which process group are project deliverables formally accepted and the project brought to a close? a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Closing
78. Which of the following processes involves obtaining team members and assigning them to their roles and responsibilities within the project? a. Acquire Resources b. Develop Team c. Manage Team d. Plan Resource Management
79. What type of dependency is created when a project activity cannot finish until another activity has finished? a. Finish-to-start (FS) b. Start-to-start (SS) c. Finish-to-finish (FF) d. Start-to-finish (SF)
80. What is the primary purpose of the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)? a. To decompose the project scope into smaller, more manageable components b. To create a detailed project schedule c. To identify and analyze project risks d. To define the roles and responsibilities of the project team

Answers: 76. a, 77. d, 78. a, 79. c, 80. a

81. What is the primary input to the Identify Stakeholders process? a. Stakeholder register b. Project charter c. Communications management plan d. Stakeholder management plan
82. In the context of earned value management, which of the following is a measure of the work performed as of a specific point in time, expressed in terms of budget authorized for that work? a. Earned value (EV) b. Planned value (PV) c. Actual cost (AC) d. Budget at completion (BAC)
83. Which of the following is NOT an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process? a. Change requests b. Approved change requests c. Change log d. Project management plan updates
84. What is the primary purpose of the scope baseline? a. To provide a reference point against which project scope performance can be measured and controlled b. To define the project boundaries and deliverables c. To identify and analyze the project stakeholders d. To create a detailed project schedule
85. Which process involves monitoring the status of project activities, managing changes to the project scope, and determining if the project is progressing according to the project management plan? a. Control Scope b. Validate Scope c. Define Scope d. Create WBS

Answers: 81. b, 82. a, 83. a, 84. a, 85. a

86. Which of the following is an output of the Plan Quality Management process? a. Quality metrics b. Quality control measurements c. Quality audit results d. Quality improvement plans
87. In the context of project management, what does SPI stand for? a. Schedule Performance Index b. Scope Performance Index c. Schedule Progress Indicator d. Scope Progress Indicator
88. Which type of project organization structure allows for better communication and coordination among various functional areas but can lead to increased project complexity due to the presence of both functional and project managers? a. Functional organization b. Projectized organization c. Matrix organization d. Virtual organization
89. What is the primary purpose of the risk register? a. To document and track identified risks, their characteristics, and their assigned owners b. To prioritize risks based on their probability and impact c. To determine the best risk response strategies d. To monitor and control risks throughout the project life cycle
90. A project manager is using a technique that involves gathering input from team members and stakeholders to create a comprehensive list of project requirements. What is the name of this technique? a. Brainstorming b. Delphi technique c. Nominal group technique d. Affinity diagram

Answers: 86. a, 87. a, 88. c, 89. a, 90. a

91. Which of the following is NOT an element of the Project Management Triangle (also known as the Iron Triangle)? a. Scope b. Time c. Cost d. Quality
92. In earned value management, which formula is used to calculate the Cost Performance Index (CPI)? a. CPI = EV / PV b. CPI = EV / AC c. CPI = PV / AC d. CPI = AC / EV
93. What type of project organization structure provides the highest level of authority to the project manager? a. Functional organization b. Projectized organization c. Matrix organization d. Virtual organization
94. What is the primary purpose of a project charter? a. To formally authorize the existence of a project and provide the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities b. To define the project scope and project deliverables c. To identify and analyze project risks d. To create a detailed project schedule
95. In the context of project management, what does the term “Gold Plating” refer to? a. Delivering project results that meet or exceed stakeholder expectations b. Adding extra features or functionality to a project deliverable that were not originally requested or required c. Using high-quality materials or resources to ensure a high level of project performance d. Ensuring that the project management team follows best practices and adheres to organizational standards

Answers: 91. d, 92. b, 93. b, 94. a, 95. b

96. Which of the following is a method used for compressing a project schedule without changing the project scope? a. Crashing b. Fast tracking c. Scope reduction d. Resource leveling
97. Which of the following processes is part of the Project Integration Management knowledge area? a. Plan Scope Management b. Plan Schedule Management c. Plan Cost Management d. Monitor and Control Project Work
98. In the context of project management, what is the purpose of a “kick-off meeting”? a. To formally initiate the project and introduce the project team to stakeholders b. To review project progress and address any issues or concerns c. To provide training and support for project team members d. To celebrate the completion of a project or project phase
99. What is the primary output of the Define Scope process? a. Project scope statement b. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) c. Scope baseline d. Requirements documentation
100. A project manager is using a tool that provides a graphical representation of the project schedule, with each project activity represented as a bar on the chart. What is the name of this tool? a. Gantt chart b. PERT chart c. Network diagram d. Milestone chart

Answers: 96. b, 97. d, 98. a, 99. a, 100. a